Thread:Comments:Large Hadron Collider reaches milestone/Comments from feedback form/reply (8)

So you're saying Let Man = x y=1/x therefore man satisfies the inequality: $$Man \le 2\pi \int_1^\infin \frac{\sqrt{1 + \frac{1}{x^4}}}{x}\mathrm{d}x $$

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At best thats a misunderstanding of how math works. (Man is not a function..., well at least not in this sense of the word). (Although i suppose you could argue that an infinite 2 dimensional surface fits inside a 3 dimensional object, [if you fold it well enough i geuss], that seems misleading)